I have moxed feeling son this.
Let's say the unit retails for 20K. And lets assume a lot of units were sold at financed on that 20K figure, with 10% down- financing 18K.
If you are a good negotiator or shopper and negotiate a price of 18K - why shouldn't you be able to make the identical financing of 18K on the same unit as the guy who paid retail? In both cases, the amount financed is the same. If the bank made you put down 10% on you 18K purchase, then you only get a loan for 16,200. For the same machines, why should you have to provide less risk to the bank than the other guy? That does not seem fair, either, to the purchaser.
THe good shopper and lazy shopper are buying the exact same machine- and the bank gives the lazy shopper 20K, but only 16.2K to the good shopper.
I think banks should loan based on the value of the asset (and the creditworthiness of the purchaser), which may or may be reflected in the price you pay.