Gary_in_Indiana
Elite Member
- Joined
- Apr 22, 2002
- Messages
- 3,373
- Location
- Fort Wayne, IN
- Tractor
- John Deere 4200 MFWD HST w/ JD 420 FEL w/ 61" loader bucket & toothbar & JD 37 BH w/ 12" bucket
<font color=blue>"this is our 20', we can do anything we want, we can cut all these trees off the bank if we want"</font color=blue>
I guess I was always under the impression that easements were granted for a specific purpose and didn't transfer any and all rights to the property.
For example, an easement for access allows the grantee to use the easement for that purpose. He cannot build a structure on it. I doubt he could even plant a crop on it. I'm not even sure there is an absolute requirement for maintenance of it. I'm sure those things vary jurisdictionally and based on the documents involved.
I foresee a similar problem for myself in the future. I bought a piece of land that was part of a larger parcel. The part I bought included the only existing drive to the house. I didn't buy the house. My property line gerrymanders around it.
I had no problem with the couple who were living there using "MY" driveway even though they still owned property on which they could build their own drivway to the road. Now, however, the house has been abandoned about 18 months and is condemned. If it's sold I have no intention of providing free access on "MY" property to that old house. My feeling is they can either put in their own drive on land they own next to my drive or pay me to use mine and maintain it. I'd hate to think that just because there is a driveway there anyone who buys property for which using it would be convenient would be allowed access so they don't have to put in their own drive. If that was going to be the case I could have bought 25' less frontage and just used it anyhow. /w3tcompact/icons/smile.gif
I don't want to be difficult for the sake of being difficult, but I did pay for this drive for a reason. It goes to my barn, too. I did NOT buy it to provide free access to anyone who buys or rents the other property. Anyone have any thoughts on how this might go based on experience you might have had?
I guess I was always under the impression that easements were granted for a specific purpose and didn't transfer any and all rights to the property.
For example, an easement for access allows the grantee to use the easement for that purpose. He cannot build a structure on it. I doubt he could even plant a crop on it. I'm not even sure there is an absolute requirement for maintenance of it. I'm sure those things vary jurisdictionally and based on the documents involved.
I foresee a similar problem for myself in the future. I bought a piece of land that was part of a larger parcel. The part I bought included the only existing drive to the house. I didn't buy the house. My property line gerrymanders around it.
I had no problem with the couple who were living there using "MY" driveway even though they still owned property on which they could build their own drivway to the road. Now, however, the house has been abandoned about 18 months and is condemned. If it's sold I have no intention of providing free access on "MY" property to that old house. My feeling is they can either put in their own drive on land they own next to my drive or pay me to use mine and maintain it. I'd hate to think that just because there is a driveway there anyone who buys property for which using it would be convenient would be allowed access so they don't have to put in their own drive. If that was going to be the case I could have bought 25' less frontage and just used it anyhow. /w3tcompact/icons/smile.gif
I don't want to be difficult for the sake of being difficult, but I did pay for this drive for a reason. It goes to my barn, too. I did NOT buy it to provide free access to anyone who buys or rents the other property. Anyone have any thoughts on how this might go based on experience you might have had?