Is it Illegal to....

[LBrown59]

An interesting side to this story is a fact that no two surveyors may agree on the same spot.

.

Not only that but the same surveyor may not even agree with himself!

 

[Dusty]

Not only that but the same surveyor may not even agree with himself!

Do you always agree with your self?

 

[LBrown59]

Do you always agree with your self?

When you're always right there is no other choice.

 

[PineRidge]

Is it Illegal to.... ....remove a land boundary survey marker?

I'm really not sure,,,,,, But I'm getting ready to start an auction for 42 used land boundary survey markers that I picked up for next to nothing.

 

[dmccarty]

Do you always agree with your self?

Depends on which self I'm talking too. Sometimes yes, sometimes no.




Later,
Dan

 

[Dusty]

When you're always right there is no other choice.

Living with a person that is always perfect and never makes any mistakes is very difficult. You must have a very difficult time living with yourself.

 

[twarr1]

What's all this talk about steel markers? One of my surveys says;

"...SE 1000 varas to a pile of rocks on the brow of a hill for a corner, thense N 45 E, 905 varas from whence a mesquite bears N to a post oak..."

I kid you not. I've not found one of these "markers". Think it's time to get it updated?

 

[Bird]

And I had to look up that word "vara" in the Merriam-Webster Dictionary

a Texas unit of length equal to 33.33 inches (84.66 centimeters)

. I didn't even know us Texans had our own unit of length.

 

[twarr1]

And I had to look up that word "vara" in the Merriam-Webster Dictionary . I didn't even know us Texans had our own unit of length.

Well kinda, we inherited it from Spain via Mexico. The Republic made it official at 33.3 ". The Spanish version was 32.8 something. So as far as I know, Texas is the only place that has a vara that = 33.3". They still don't have it all the conversions figured out in far west Texas.

 

[gemini5362]

I think the common law principle you're referring to is called "adverse possession". As I understand it, if one possesses what is legally another person's real estate for a continuous period of 21 years, and the owner has taken no action during that period to assert his property rights, then the person that maintained possession for 21 years would have "adverse possession" as a defense should the owner seek to assert his property rights in the future.

Without going through all of the posts. I happen to know something about this subject since I have access to a real estate attorney. Various states are going to have various laws. Keep in mind though that in some states and in this post the term used is adverse possession. To have adverse possesion you have to adversely posess it which means the owner has to know that you are doing that and you have done it against the owners wishes.