Richard
Super Member
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- Apr 6, 2000
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- Knoxville, TN
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California said:so as POA and Trustee I sold everything the first business day after his death.
Although I know your intentions were honorable and today, this is all past history BUT... it might be worth knowing that technically, the moment your father passed away, your POA (Power of attorney) ALSO ceased to exist. You included Trustee, so you would have been either the trustee or a successor trustee (unclear given your comments) and in that capacity, could have done the trade.
I just want people who see the "POA" part to understand that once the grantor of any POA passes away, that authority passes away with them and is useless.
It's being a Trustee that saves your hiney!!
(again, this isn't legal advice, just stories as they come to me)
Having POA is great as long as the person is breathing...once they pass away, it's useless. What THEN becomes real handy dandy to have is being appointed successor trustee of the trust... you can bypass a LOT of headaches that way.
The real thing that saved California's hiney here was that his father went ahead and consolidated his certificates into an account (and ANY broker/dealer can do this... they will all show them consolidated on an account statement)
Anyways... His father simply signed a bunch of certificates or stock powers and the whole problem was DONE. Had his father NOT done so... then for each different company, California (or whomever was executor) would have had to obtain a SET of legal forms for each individual security.
Too bad there's still no one with a clue on my original question... my attempts locally have also been met with blank stares
Perhaps a change in flavor...
How's this...
If a 401 is comprised of 95K pretax contributions and 5K of after tax contributions... AND if we are required to take an RMD out...
If we can get the 401K company to SPLIT the cash like is in fact happening and give him a rollover check for 95K to bring to me, and a 5K after tax check that's HIS... Can he keep that 5K check and apply it AS his RMD for this year?? even though it's not taxable?
Just to clear the air...I'm now more asking just for intellecutual curiosity... I'm really beginning to gravitate towards simply using the last 12/31 statement (which is inflated by counting the non-taxable part) and be safe about it.... If he can find the answer he's willing to live with through HIS accountant...then I can live with it too... if he's going to rely on MY thoughts, then I'm going to go conservative and simply suggest using the inflated amount and get it over with. It will ONLY be for this single year so it won't be an ongoing problem.