buckeyefarmer
Epic Contributor
Depends on type of line. check out gomarcellusshale.com
Go to the courthouse and do your own research. It's not that difficult.
Yep, did hat when I bought the property but there were a lot of legal speak in the deeds that makes me think but not know for sure.
Yep, did hat when I bought the property but there were a lot of legal speak in the deeds that makes me think but not know for sure.
Well there should be an original lease that specifies who signed it with the gas company. Then you have to figure out who it was passed onto from their will.
No current production last wells were back in the 50's and property changed hands 3x since then. Original family had a clause that stipulated they held 100% of existing production then conveyed 50%. Didn't see any of the prior owners retain any so by my best account I have half. But again, that's a lot of legal speak in the deed transfers which doesn't make it easy to decipher. That's why there are oil and gas specialized attorneys.
I had the seller sign an affidavit of no production and filed it so believe that should satisfy original stipulation.